Category: Qumran

The Apostle Paul and variegated nomism.

Did the Apostle Paul have one view of Law observance or did it differ with each new situation?

Andrew Wilson wrote a helpful short article yesterday titled “The New Perspective: A Duffer’s Guide” wherein he examines four major “new perspectives” on Second Temple Judaism as well as the corresponding “new perspectives” on the Apostle Paul. I recommend you read it, though I want to summarize it here.

First, he presents the “old perspective” where the Jews sought to relate to God through rules and regulations. Judaism was a proto-Pelagianism or something like the Roman Catholicism that Martin Luther protested. While there are very few scholars who affirm this view it remains popular. Paul is understood as someone who proposed “grace” against the moralism of Judaism. He preached “faith” against Judaism’s “works.” Again, while this is popular from pulpits it is rejected by most of academia.

Second, there is the view popularized by E.P. Sanders known as “covenantal nomism” which is the view that God elected Israel in his mercy, and that the Law is a response to the grace of God, not an attempt to earn it. Many who affirm this view seem to think that Paul misunderstood Judaism (quite odd for a Pharisee) or he intentionally misrepresented it to his audiences.

Third, there is a similar view that says Paul understood and correctly represented Judaism, but he had contention with particular “works of the Law” such as circumcision, Sabbath observation, dietary laws, and so forth. These “works” were not moralistic, but identity forming. These “works” prevented Gentile inclusion into the Kingdom of God making the early church ethnocentric rather that welcoming to everyone. In this view Paul attacked those who sought to make Gentiles into Jews rather than allowing them to enter on their own terms.

Fourth, there is a group that acknowledges that covenantal nomism existed, but that there were other understandings of how Law observance impacted one’s eschatological standing before God. This particular view argues for a “variegated nomism” (see David Stark’s helpful review of Justification and Variegated Nomism) or a diverse understanding of the function of Law obedience among Jews. This view seems to explain why in Paul’s writings there are places where he seems to address what we’d call “covenantal nomism” while there are others where he does seem to “principalize” things a bit bringing Paul’s language closer to the older view when Paul addresses views of Law observance that seem to place final justification before God on the shoulders of the Law observer, rather than the crucified and risen Messiah.

I admit that I tend to fluctuate between points three and four in Wilson’s article, which I guess makes me more like four though not quite willing to allow for a full-blown Lutheranism. Oddly enough, I do wrestle with this through the lens of my own religious history. As a child and a teen I was in Oneness Pentecostal circles. They had very strict “holiness standards” like not wearing a beard (because of the hippies in the 60′s), not wearing shorts, not going to the movie theater or watching television (this was before iTunes, Netflix, and Hulu threw a wrench in their legalism), and then there were various degrees of strictness about other things like sleeve length and whether one could watch VHS at home.

For women it was much worse. They were not allowed to wear pants, they couldn’t cut their hair or wear make-up and jewelry, their skirts had to be below the knee, and so forth and so on.

Luther would call this legalism. I agree. Is this what Second Temple Jews did though?

Well, when Oneness Pentecostal pastors preach these “holiness standards” they are cautious about calling them “salvific” (usually). Often I heard the line, “You can’t earn your salvation but you can lose it.” Likewise, they saw themselves as receiving “revelation” that other misguided Christian groups had not received (which sounds a bit gnostic) and this seemed to me like “election” of sorts. So it wasn’t that you saved yourself, but rather that you were brought into the Kingdom by the grace of God, but then it was your responsibility to be obedient in order to maintain your standing. You could repent, of course, but you couldn’t live in “rebellion” lest you be removed or shunned from the community which essentially equates with being “lost” of “backslidden.”

I wonder what it was like for some Jews who lived in these communities. When I read 1Q, The Community Rule Scroll from Qumran I see something not quite Pelagian, but something that makes me lean toward variegated nomism. If Qumran is a remnant, and they are true the people of God, and someone does one of the things that expels them from the community, do we have room to speak of this as “losing their salvation” or not? If so, then their deeds revoked them from the remnant and they will be judged.

Of course, one could argue that the same is true of the Pauline churches, like Corinth where the man having sex with his father’s wife is excommunicated. Yet there is a major difference in the type of offenses allowed at Qumran and in the Pauline churches. In other words, the Pauline churches seem more graceful to me (e.g. see my “Ways to be Expelled from the Qumran Community”). Again, I read my own religious experience side-by-side with this discussion. As an evangelical I do see principles in Scripture that argue that there are things that seem to disqualify the claim that one is a Christian. Whether one is lost or not is hard to know, but if a church excommunicated someone who was sleeping with his father’s wife I would find it justifiable. Most people would see this as a moral offense of some sort. Yet I find it disturbing that a woman could be removed from her church for cutting her hair. Did Paul feel this way about Qumran? Did Jesus feel this way about the Pharisees refusal to engage in table fellowship with “sinners”? I don’t know, but it is something worth pondering. If Paul did feel this way about how his fellow Jews interpreted Law observance then there is a “variegated nomism” of sorts and it is hard to accept E.P. Sanders somewhat black-and-white “Paul misrepresented” position. I know Oneness Pentecostals who would think I misrepresent their “holiness standards” when I call it “legalism”, but that is subjective, no? If Paul disagreed with his fellow Jews on what allows for fellowship it could be similar.

Saturdays in Second Temple Judaism: Messiah as the “star”.

It seems that one of the names for Messiah around the time of Jesus was the “star” (כוכב) taken from Num 24.17b which reads, “…a star shall come out of Jacob, a scepter shall rise out of Israel. He will crush the foreheads of Moab, the skulls of all the sons of Sheth.” In his article “Are the ‘Son’ Texts at Qumran Messianic?” (James H. Charlesworth, Hermann Lichtenberger, and Gerban S. Oegema, eds., Qumran Messianism: Studies on the Messianic Expectations in the Dead Sea Scrolls, p. 136) Craig Evans lists CD 7.18-20; 1 QM 11.6 and 4Q175 12 as text describing this “star” as a seeker of the Law.

It seems to be a Messianic figure in CD 7.19-20 where it it written, “The king is the congregation; and the bases of the statues are the Book of the Prophets whose sayings Israel despised. The star is the Interpreter of the Law who shall come to Damascus; as it is written, ‘A star shall come forth out of Jacob and a sceptre shall rise out of Israel (Num. xxiv, 17. The sceptre is the Prince of the whole congregation, and when he comes he shall smite all the children of Seth (Num. xxiv, 17). (Vermes, The Complete Dead Sea Scrolls in English, 135).

In 1QM 11.6 this passage is quoted in the context of a soon coming war where the true Israel at Qumran would defeat the evil world “at the hand of your annointed”. In 4Q 175 12 the author is writing about the prophet like Moses who would arise.

In the second century a failed candidate for Messiah named Simon was called “bar Kokhba” (שמעון בר כוכבא) or Simon “son of a star”.

Yet I can’t think of any reference to Jesus this way. It is not that this name is so important that it is surprising, but just an interesting thing to note.

The Voice Crying in the Wilderness: One Take on the Use of Isaiah 40.3 in Matthew 3.3

Icon of John the Baptist

Jeremy Cushman recently asked if one of the writers on this blog would be willing to address the use of Is. 40.3 in Mt. 3.3 (see here). He wanted to know if the wilderness language was being correctly applied by John the Baptist in his proclamation (and I assume we ought to examine the evangelist’s use as well). Also, he wanted to know if John’s proclamation has anything to do with the Qumran community dwelling in the wilderness waiting for YHWH’s vindication. I am willing to provide one take and I’d welcome others.

I will order my approach this way: (1) historical setting; (2) literary context; (3) dogmatic function.

Historical context: Many scholars have suggested that John the Baptist may have derived from the Qumran community. He was in the wilderness. He seems to have been in protest of both the Jerusalem hierarchy as well as the corrupt temple cult. He was willing to suggest that forgiveness of sins could come from YHWH God without the sacrificial system and ritual washings offered by the priesthood, but rather his own ministry near the Jordan River would suffice.

Did he actually come from Qumran? I don’t know if there is any way to know. That Is. 40.3 would have been read by the people of Qumran as evidence that YHWH’s return will come in the wilderness (rather than in the city) is likely, though I cannot think of any DSS texts off the top of my head that say this (any suggestions, anyone?).

It does seem that John himself may have very well adopted this passage to refer to his own ministry. Now when we ask if John used this text legitimately we are asking a tough question. Who is to say? Did the author of Isaiah 40 have John in mind? Unlikely. Did John stand in the hermeneutical tradition of early Judaism that had no qualm with applying biblical texts to the current situation. Yes.

So no, Is. 40.3 likely does not refer directly to the Qumran community or John’s ministry. This does not make the usage illegitimate though. It seems to be a common hermeneutic in this time that YHWH God reenacts his own works (see how often the exodus tradition is reenacted). John could have seen his own ministry as reenacting YHWH’s return in the wilderness and it seems even more likely that this is exactly how the evangelist interpreted it.

Literary context: So what did Matthew mean by this? It is commonly suggested that this is a good proof text for the incarnation. Again, yes and no. I doubt that John saw Jesus and he thought, “Oh, look, YHWH as a man!” Rather, I would bet that he understood his own ministry as a prophet as calling Israel back to covenant faithfulness in order for the presence of YHWH God to return (as N.T. Wright would say, this would be the “forgiveness of sins” and “the end of exile”).

When Matthew connects Jesus he may or may not have thought something like developed Christian doctrine when we speak of the incarnation. Rather, it seems that the first evangelist understood Jesus as bringing YHWH’s presence in his ministry. To borrow from Wright again, in the tradition of Psalm 2 and 110, the Messiah represents YHWH’s reign on earth. While Matthew may not have thought of Jesus as being YHWH “incarnate” as later language would suggest, he surely did see Jesus as embodying YHWH’s returning reign. In Jesus we have YHWH’s return to Israel.

Dogmatic function: Is it wrong to read Mt. 3.3 as a “fulfillment” of Is. 40.3 that Jesus would be YHWH incarnate, visiting his people. May we maintain this dogma? I say yes. While Mt. 3.3. may not have originally insinuated this, we still formulate doctrine as the church catholic. We gain from the Johannine and Pauline writings that Jesus was “God made known in human existence” or “the Logos made flesh”. We are not part of a s0-called Matthean community that is only aware of the gospel from that perspective. We have the collected “canon” of the early church and therefore we do Christology broadly.

With that in mind it is the same Jesus in the First Gospel that we find in the Fourth Gospel. We need to let the first evangelist have his voice, but we should stop with saying that Jesus embodied YHWH’s presence and acted on behalf of YHWH because the First Gospel may seem to  be saying no more or no less (this is debated). We do our dogmatics, once again, from a catholic perspective. So we can read Mt. 3.3. and think about Jesus being God incarnate and it is right to do so. This doesn’t necessitate that the first evangelist intend such a thing.