Category: Satan

Satan, the Ruler of the World?

We all know the story. Jesus, in Matthew 4:8-9 is taken to a high mountain (where worship happened back then) by Satan. Satan offers Jesus the kingdoms of the world if only he bows and worships him. Interesting, isn’t it? 

I think evangelicals are extremely uncomfortable with this passage of Scripture. How do I know? I addressed around five commentaries (including Keener, Witherington, and France) and at best, only France slightly alludes to the possibility of what I am going to write about. Why would they be uncomfortable? Precisely because Satan, in this pericope, seems to have authority over the “kingdoms of the world.” Why would that make Evangelicals uncomfortable? It’s uncomfortable because two reasons: 1) it possibly messes with our understanding of God’s sovereignty; 2) we are modern men, although we claim to, we don’t really act like we believe in angels, demons, and their hierarchal ruler, Satan.  It seems like Bultmann’s influence really did have a lasting effect.

So what do I think this is about? When Satan offers Jesus the kingdoms of the world, it is a temptation precisely because he has something to offer Jesus, namely, the kingdoms of the world. How could this be? Isn’t God sovereign? A lot of literature written during Second Temple Judaism attempted to answer the question of evil, suffering, and sin in the world. They often assumed the cause was fallen angelic beings. As well as this, they went so far to assume that fallen angelic beings had authority and dominion over nations. The book of Jubilees, a book dependent on the book of Watchers places fallen angels as bound before the great deluge. After this, their leader Mastema (a Satan or Beelzebul equivalent) asked God for permission to release one tenth of the evil spirits to execute dominion over humanity. Another example of fallen angels having authority and dominion over the world or nations is found in Pseudo-Moses. Israel was subject to angels of destruction, which were demonic figures who symbolized the rule of the Diadochian kings. We also see it within our own canon in Daniel 10:13. The “Prince of Persia” seems to have been an angelic figure influencing Persia. Other literature such as the Damascus Document also understands Israel at times to be subject and ruled by these fallen angels during their time of lawlessness.

When I read Matthew 4, I understand Satan’s offer to Jesus as an actual offer. In my opinion, the three temptations for Jesus were temptations to accomplish parts of the mission God placed before him without actually relying on God (for passing where Israel failed, for a messianic following, and for becoming King). Yes, Deuteronomy 6-8 are definitely in mind. Israel’s exodus from Egypt is in mind, but also is the apocalyptic dimension we find in much Second Temple literature.

What Jesus accomplished on the cross and by resurrection was the defeat of Satan. As Paul explicitly makes it clear in Philippians 2:6-11, Jesus was not always the Lord over all. He became Lord. Jesus was not always the king, he became king by God’s exaltation of him. So, in the Matthew 4:1-11 narrative, Jesus overcame the temptation from Satan. What did he do? We see it all throughout his ministry in the Gospels, we see it in Acts 10:38 (Jesus healing those oppressed by the devil), we see it in Colossians 2:15: Jesus overthrew Satan’s rule over kingdoms.

I think this bears a lot of implication for today, especially in third world countries for missionaries. What does it mean to say Jesus is Lord? It means the Satan is not. It means that when there is one controlled by demonic forces, there is authority in the name of Jesus. It means for “power encounters” that the power of Satan and his forces means nothing next to the power of the Spirit.

Perhaps you’ll think I’m a wacky Pentecostal. Tell me anyways, what are your thoughts about this passage? Do you have a different interpretation? Do you think this misses the mark?

Update: I am in no way denying the pre-existent divinity of Christ in what I say above. See comment section for more information. 

Sources:

Evans, Craig A., and Stanley E. Porter, eds. Dictionary of New Testament Background. Downers Grove, Ill.: IVP Academic, 2000.

Satan, the devil, the evil one across the Synoptic Gospels.

Earlier today I shared a sample pericope from the Synoptic Gospels wherein Satan/the Devil/the Evil One is mentioned in Matthew 13.19; Mark 4.15; and Luke 8.12 (see “Satan, the devil, the evil one”). I used it to point out how we may explain morphing from one Gospel to another. In the story of the sower (shared in Matthew 13.1-23; Mark 4.1-20; and Luke 8.4-15) if we begin with Markan priority it would move from “the Satan” in Mark to “the Evil One” in Matthew and “the Devil” in Luke. I proposed a solution to these differences when it seems like Matthew and Luke may have had Mark and Luke may have had Matthew as well is that Matthew wasn’t comfortable with Mark’s named “Satan” so he generalized it to “the Evil One” (kind of like he calls the Kingdom of God the Kingdom of Heaven) and that Luke went with the less Hebraic “Satan” in favor of “the Devil”.

Of course, there is one major problem with this solution. As one commenter observed it doesn’t match the data from the rest of the Gospels. Why?

First, Matthew uses Satan in 4.10; 12.26; and 16.23. Mark 1.9-12 tells the story of Jesus’ temptation and he names Satan. In Matthew 4.1-11 we find the parallel story and Matthew names Satan. In Luke 4.1-13 we find the parallel story and Luke calls him “the Devil” in vv. 2, 3, 5, 9, and 13. In Matthew 12.26 Jesus speaks of Satan as being divided against himself. When Luke shares a similar saying in 11.18 he names “Satan”. In 16.23 Matthew has Jesus rebuking Peter calling him “Satan”. Mark does the same in 8.33.

Second, as has been made obvious, “Satan” is used in Matthew (4.10; 12.26; and 16.23), Mark (1.13; 3.23, 26; 4.15; and 8.33), and Luke (10.18; 11.18; 13.16; and 22.3, 31). Likewise, “the Devil” is used by both Matthew (4.1, 5, 8, 11; 13.139; and 25.41) and Luke (4.2, 3, 6, 13). Interestingly enough, I can’t find “the Devil” in Mark. Matthew 13.19, 38 refer to “the Evil One” but this designation for Satan is not found in Mark or Luke.

So returning to what I wrote earlier more data does the following: (1) It disproves my first proposal that maybe Matthew called Satan “the Evil One” because he was not comfortable with “the Satan” since he uses the name Satan at least three times. (2) Mark uses Satan frequently, but I cannot find him using “the Evil One” or “the Devil” (if you find a reference please let me know), so maybe that does lend itself to being more Hebraic. (3) Luke uses Satan so his “the Devil” is not necessarily his way of addressing Gentiles.

I say all that to say that I don’t have a good reason for the morphing from Mark 4.15 to Matthew 13.19 to Luke 8.12, but I do find it interesting that “Satan” is Mark’s unique term for the Devil. Also, “the Evil One” seems to be used by Matthew alone and in a brief literary space.

Thoughts?

 

Satan, the devil, the evil one.

Yesterday I posted my notes from my study of Matthew 13.1-23; Mark 4.1-20; and Luke 8.4-15 (see “Studying the Synoptic Problem: The Sower”). As I read through these versions of the parable of the sower I noticed that Satan is mentioned in all three Gospels as a character who comes like birds eating seeds that have fallen alongside the road devouring the message of Christ from people’s hearts. Also, I noticed that each Evangelist describes him by a different name.

In Matthew 13.19 he is “the Evil One” (ὁ πονηρὸς). In Mark 4.15 he is “the Satan” (ὁ Σατανᾶς). In Luke 8.12 he is “the Devil” (ὁ διάβολος).

If we assume Markan priority than Matthew didn’t want to call him “Satan” but settled for the more cautious “the Evil One”. Luke would have avoided the more Hebraic name “Satan” (השטן). If we assume Markan posteriority then Mark took the more cautious “Evil One” and named him Satan choosing to go with the more Hebraic form against Luke’s “Devil”.

In a sense this reminds me a bit of how these Evangelists discuss the Kingdom of God/Heaven. Mark and Luke call the Kingdom of God (e.g. τῆς βασιλείας τοῦ θεοῦ in Mk 4.11 and Lk 8.10) while Matthew settles for the generalized Hebraic “of Heaven” (e.g. τῆς βασιλείας τῶν οὐρανῶν in 13.11).

At least from this small sample we see (1) Matthew is not comfortable naming divine and semi-divine beings to some extent; (2) Mark shows a more Hebraic mindset by using the name “Satan”; (3) Matthew does the same by talking about the Kingdom “of Heaven”; (4) Luke settles for Gentile friendly language.