For those who are more gifted in understanding how language works please assist me with these two questions:
(1) Since the question mark (;) would not have been at the end of v. 13 or in the middle of v. 15 until added later for clarification is it possible to read these vv. as a statement rather than a question? In other words, could it say, “Judge for yourselves: it is proper for a woman to pray to God uncovered. Neither does nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair it is a shame to him, but if a woman has long hair it is a glory to her”
(2) You may have noticed my second question while reading the first: Why not translate οὐδὲ as “neither” rather than “does not” at the beginning of v. 14?
Your insight is much appreciated in advance!